Thursday classes

THe quiz question for Introduction to Philosophy this morning regarded the apparently greater success in English speaking countries of woman's equality and the possibility that what has helped enable this is the relative neutrality of the English language - literally in English most nouns are neuter. This is unlike many other languages - French for example. Notice this book by Pierre Bourdieu (it is translated here in English but he is referring to French and Kabyle society where nouns are all sexed.) So the question for you is, do you think this is a reasonable thesis? That the gender neutrality of English has helped the equality of the sexes in English speaking society? For History of Philosophy I, the quiz question today is concerned with Book XI Chapter 26 of Augustine's The City of God. Do you find his description of the Trinity convincing?